by christaci2  14/01/2016  448 Page Views
4 Comments  Family & de facto law, financial agreements, consent orders
My wife and I separated amicably 2 years ago. We were married 14 years. We had no assets apart from furniture worth $20,000 a car and $60,000 which I brought into the relationship. She asked for nothing as she was gainfully employed (I was not) and took out a loan (post separation) of $45,000 to help her start again. She also had a visa card (on her name only) with a $40,000 limit.
3 months ago she decided to withdraw the full limit and go and live overseas. She now owes the balance of her loan and her visa totalling $70,000. Am I in any way liable for her debt. Can the creditors come after me to recover the debt?
I would appreciate your response.
Thank you.