by JAJKP2012  16/01/2014  222 Page Views
3 Comments  Family & de facto law, financial agreements, consent orders

In the process of formulating consent orders that will likely lead to an application for parenting orders and I have the following question.

In a situation where there has been domestic abuse/family violence enacted upon one parent by the other, which has stopped due to the parents separating, and where there is no belief that the child is at risk of harm.

Does the fact that domestic abuse/family violence has occurred in the past need to be addressed in the orders? Is it a requirement that the issue be brought before the Family court? Can an individual be penalised if they do not bring the matter to the attention of the court, even though the domestic abuse/family violence has stopped and there is no belief that the child is at risk?