Any advice on this would be great:
My ex purchased a new car a month after we separated.
2 years later we are just commencing property settlement, and she is saying the car shouldn't be included as it was purchased by brother. We asked for evidence of this, and received a bank statement showing $5000 was paid by brother direct to the car yard, I'm guessing this was deposit - the car would've been approximately $15 000 new, and I know full well she used the money from our separation to buy it, given that we had sold our family car one week prior and split the funds 50/50. I'm pretty sure she paid this $5000 back when we sold another one of our assets. The plot then thickens, as my kids just told me she bought a new car. Not sure why she would've done this in the middle of property settlement?? My gut feeling says it's to try and remove any thought that it should be in pool - if she got it fully financed. But wouldn't that mean the sale of the old car should still be included? Do we just ask for contract of sale for both vehicles? But even then we can't 'make' them include it in pool can we?
I do not want her getting a cent more than she's entitled, but seems her lawyer is all about hiding things, and trying to get away with as much as they can.
We have a month left until the limitation date, her lawyer has said that they give consent to file after that date if required. I don't want to file proceedings, but I'm not going to get walked over. She has super of $110k, which is the biggest asset remaining along with $20k from house sale, and she is sticking to 50/50. I have custody of our 7yo and 4yo girls, for the last 2 years.