by rannii  01/03/2016  190 Page Views
2 Comments  Family & de facto law, financial agreements, consent orders

First query is whether orders are "final" or "consent".

2 day trial. Judge outs father in witness stand and basically, back the father in the corner and father "consents" to reduced time.    For 2 years father was seeking week about parenting. Family report last 18 months has been providing for alternate weekends.

Judge had to hand down orders re parental responsibility issues.

So,   Why are these considered "consent"???   

Now, based on the fact we got to conclusion of trial and judge handed down orders exparte, orders are now deemed "consent" - why does that preclude me from going for costs????

Fathers sole ambition was to financially ruin me. He kept the game going but until the 11th hour. - wasting not just my $$$, but also taxpayers.

Where in the rules does it state I cannot go costs due to "consent"?

Are there any cases out there that would support my position??